Struggling to figure something out
In all earnest, I do not want to make this
a he-said/she-said political debate. I'm simply struggling with one
thing in the 2074 pages of the Health
Care Reform Bill that I downloaded from senate.gov.
I read legal language like a software coder. Which, fortunately,
is also how judges tend to use it: as INPUTs.
"SEC. 5000B. IMPOSITION OF TAX ON ELECTIVE COSMETIC MEDICAL PROCEDURES.
(a) IN GENERAL.—There is hereby imposed on any cosmetic surgery and medical procedure a tax equal to 5 percent of the amount paid for such procedure (determined without regard to this section), whether paid by insurance or otherwise."
So, as a person that deals regularly in logic, I have to say that it should be "cosmetic surgery OR medical procedure" or better yet: "cosmetic surgery OR cosmetic medical procedure." Otherwise it only applies to surgeries that were part of a procedure. Of course, although the title says "Elective" nothing in the regulation language says elective, so if your face were sliced from ear to ear by a rapist, and you went to a plastic surgeon to get it fixed, you might have to pay a 5% excise tax. At least, if I'm reading the bill correctly.
Additionally, this provision that was signed on Mar 23 2010....
"shall apply to procedures performed on or after January 1, 2010."
I must be missing something. How is that not an ex post facto law? If between Jan 1 and Mar 23, you underwent a procedure that meets these criteria, you are subject to a 5 percent tax on them, correct?
Maybe I just don't understand the meaning of "shall" or "after" I'm open to corrections here, dear readers.
"SEC. 5000B. IMPOSITION OF TAX ON ELECTIVE COSMETIC MEDICAL PROCEDURES.
(a) IN GENERAL.—There is hereby imposed on any cosmetic surgery and medical procedure a tax equal to 5 percent of the amount paid for such procedure (determined without regard to this section), whether paid by insurance or otherwise."
So, as a person that deals regularly in logic, I have to say that it should be "cosmetic surgery OR medical procedure" or better yet: "cosmetic surgery OR cosmetic medical procedure." Otherwise it only applies to surgeries that were part of a procedure. Of course, although the title says "Elective" nothing in the regulation language says elective, so if your face were sliced from ear to ear by a rapist, and you went to a plastic surgeon to get it fixed, you might have to pay a 5% excise tax. At least, if I'm reading the bill correctly.
Additionally, this provision that was signed on Mar 23 2010....
"shall apply to procedures performed on or after January 1, 2010."
I must be missing something. How is that not an ex post facto law? If between Jan 1 and Mar 23, you underwent a procedure that meets these criteria, you are subject to a 5 percent tax on them, correct?
Maybe I just don't understand the meaning of "shall" or "after" I'm open to corrections here, dear readers.


Comments
Posted by Andrew Brew At 06:17:54 PM On 03/24/2010 |
2. It's not the rule that's ex post facto, but the enforcement. However, there is a legal precedent of laws being made retroactive without being considered to be ex post facto. Most of them give things out instead of taking things, but it's been done before. Plus, the prohibition is on Congress to avoid ex post facto in their initial intent. The Senate passed its bill before January 1, so I'm not sure that it's considered to be ex post facto if the House waits on passing the same bill unaltered, or the President waits to sign it. As long as the rule originates before the date specified, I think it's unconstitutional. Realistically, I don't think that they'll *actually* go back and demand payment, they'll probably just start requiring hospitals and clinics to charge the amount like a sales tax at some point once they have the system set up.
3. I think it'll be moot anyway, as this whole section is supposed to change in the reconciliation bill. Of course, I haven't read the most recent House version of that bill, so I won't know what's actually there until I look. :)
Posted by Brian Miller At 09:23:12 AM On 03/24/2010 |
Posted by Bob Baehr At 05:42:11 AM On 03/24/2010 |
Here's what may be a more up-to-date bill for you. This one is 2400 pages!
{ Link }
But let me correct something you wrote. This isn't Section 500B of HR 3590, it's actually Section 9017 which then gives the amended wording of Subtitle D of Internal Revenue Code of 1986 Chapter 49, Section 500B. (Guess it's like joined Notes views?
And, yes, in the 2400 page bill, the January 1, 2010 date is still in the wording. I would think that does make it an ex post facto law with the caveat that most ex post facto law issues normally are meant for criminal acts and possibly not for taxation. But I agree that it's at the very least an ex post facto tax!
But then we have just went over all of this above and we get to Section 10907 of HR3590 and we read:
"(a) IN GENERAL.—The provisions of, and amendments made by, section 9017 of this Act are hereby deemed null, void, and of no effect."
Now they're going to tax indoor tanning effective July 1, 2010 instead of cosmetic procedures.
OK, who's ready to go into business with me - OUTDOOR Tanning FTW!!!
Posted by Chris Whisonant At 10:27:01 AM On 03/25/2010 |
Posted by Nathan T. Freeman At 12:07:10 AM On 03/25/2010 |